Civils Prelims 2019 Model Questions
TEST 5 (27. 04. 2019 )
Prepared
by :Praturi Potayya Sarma
Questions based on BANKING
/ ECONOMY
1) Which of the following
are called as Multilateral
Development Banks (MDB) ?
a) World
Bank Group (e.g., The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development,
The International Finance Corporation)
b) Asian Development Bank
c) African
Development Bank
d) All the above
Ans : d
2) Agriculture infrastructure includes which of the following eligible for
bank loans ?
a) Loans for construction
of storage facilities (warehouses, market yards, godowns and silos) including
cold storage units/ cold storage chains designed to store agriculture
produce/products, irrespective of their location.
b)Soil conservation and
watershed development.
c) Plant tissue culture
and agri-biotechnology, seed production, production of bio-pesticides,
bio-fertilizer, and vermi composting
d) All the above
Ans : d
3) The
present distinction between direct and indirect agriculture is dispensed with.
Instead, the lending to agriculture sector has been re-defined to include which
of the following ?
a) Farm Credit (which will include short-term
crop loans and medium/long-term credit to farmers)
b)
Agriculture Infrastructure
c) Ancillary
Activities
d) All the above
Ans : d
4) When
Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd (FBIL) was incorporated as per the
recommendations of the Committee on Financial Benchmarks ? Give details.
a) 2014
b) FBIL has
so far taken over existing benchmarks such as Mumbai Inter-Bank Outright Rate
(MIBOR) and option volatility, and introduced new benchmarks such as Market
Repo Overnight Rate (MROR), Certificate of Deposits (CDs) and T-Bills yield
curves.
c) The
development of FBIL as an independent organisation for administration of all
financial market benchmarks including valuation benchmarks is important for the
credibility of these benchmarks and integrity of financial markets.
d) All the
above
Ans:d
5) What is the goal of ‘Basel III’ ? Give details.
a) to raise the quality, consistency and transparency
of the capital base of banks to withstand unanticipated losses and to
strengthen the overall risk coverage of the capital framework.
b) In addition to revising the minimum capital ratio
requirements for credit risk, ‘Basel III’ also introduced a capital
conservation buffer (CCB) and a countercyclical capital buffer
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) To give loans
Ans : c
6) The inflation path during 2019-20
is likely to be shaped by several factors. What are they ?
a) First, low food inflation during
January-February will have a bearing on the near-term inflation outlook.
b) Second, the fall in the fuel
group inflation witnessed at the time of the February policy has become
accentuated.
c) Third, CPI inflation excluding
food and fuel in February was lower than expected, which has imparted some
downward bias to headline inflation.
d) Fourth, international crude oil
prices have increased by around 10 per cent since the last policy. Fifth,
inflation expectations of households as well as input and output price
expectations of producers polled in the Reserve Bank’s surveys have further
moderated. Taking into consideration these factors and assuming a normal
monsoon in 2019, the path of CPI inflation is revised downwards to 2.4 per cent
in Q4:2018-19, 2.9-3.0 per cent in H1:2019-20 and 3.5-3.8 per cent in
H2:2019-20, with risks broadly balanced;
and All the above
Ans : d
7) ‘PSB Manthan’ is relating to which of the following ?
a) Milk churning
b) Discussions about banks, and their competencies, opportunities to
buy or swap loan assets etc.
c) Sea Churning
d) Doubts clarification
Ans:b
8) Direct Benefit Transfer
(DBT) is Government’s major reform initiative to re-engineer the existing
delivery processes, ensuring better and timely delivery of benefits using
Information & Communication Technology (ICT). DBT focuses on which of the
following ?
a) better targeting of
beneficiary
b) timely disbursal of
benefits
c) curbing of pilferage by
de-duplication
d) elimination of ghost
beneficiaries etc.
and All the above
Ans:d
9) What is the role of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in the
present scenario ?
a) Encourage loans
b) to remove delays in the resolution process
c) promoting advertisements
d) encouraging industrialists
Ans:b
10) Which is called as FATF
compliant country ?
a) A country that is a member
of Financial Action Task Force (FATF) or a member of a FATF-Style Regional
Body;
b) Country which is exporting terrorism
c) Country which is pampering money
laundering
d) Country which is allowing narcotics
Ans : a
11) Indian banking sector is facing the problem of
growing ‘Non-Performing Assets’ (NPAs). From 2014 to 2017, the average level of
NPA to advances ratio across public-sector banks has almost doubled from 5 per
cent to 10 per cent. Rising NPA levels have curtailed which of the following
? [Banks are rebuilding capital or
keeping aside larger share of loanable funds against future possible losses.]
a) supply of bank credit
b) demand for money
c) demand for gold
d) demand for
silver
Ans : a
12) What is “Financial Inclusion” ?
a) It is the way the Governments strive
to take the common man along by bringing them into the formal channel of
economy thereby ensuring that even the person standing in the last is not left
out from the benefits of the economic growth and is added in the mainstream
economy thereby encouraging the poor person to save, safely invest in various
financial products and to borrow from the formal channel when (s) he need to
borrow.
b) money distribution
c) food distribution
d) housing accommodation
Ans : a
13) Stand up India is
launched to extend bank loans between Rs 10 lakhs to Rs 1 crore for Greenfield
enterprises set up by whom and to
provide them handholding support?
a) SC, ST & women entrepreneurs
b) only engineers
c) only doctors
d) only diploma holders
Ans : a
14) What is a Digital Signature Certificate?
a) Digital Signature Certificates (DSC)
are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper
certificates.
b) Examples of physical certificates are
drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards.
c) Certificates serve as proof of
identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's
license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country.
d) Likewise, a digital certificate can
be presented electronically to prove your identity, to access information or
services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.
And All the above
Ans: d
15) Who issues the Digital Signature Certificate?
a) A licensed Certifying Authority (CA) issues the digital signature.
Certifying Authority (CA) means a person who has been granted a license to
issue a digital signature certificate under Section 24 of the Indian IT-Act
2000.
b) The list of licensed CAs along with their contact information is
available on the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) portal
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Planning Commission of India
Ans: c
16) Why is Digital Signature Certificate (DSC)
required?
a) Like physical documents are signed manually, electronic documents,
for example e-forms are required to be signed digitally using a Digital
Signature Certificate
b) to purchase gold
c) to purchase silver
d) to purchase lottery tickets
Ans: a
17) What are White Label ATMs (WLAs)?
a)
Automobiles
b) ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-banks
are called White Label ATMs. Non-bank ATM operators are authorized under
Payment & Settlement Systems Act, 2007 by the Reserve Bank of India.
c) Cell Phones
d) ipads
Ans: b
18) What is the difference between ATM and WLA
(White Label ATM)?
a) In White Label ATM scenario, logo displayed on ATM
machine and in ATM premises pertain to WLA Operator instead of a bank
b) However, for a customer, using WLA is just like
using the ATM of other bank (bank other than card issuing bank).
c) Acceptance of cash deposits at the WLAs is not
permitted at present
d) All the above
Ans: d
19)What is ‘Balance of Payments’ (BoP) ?
a) It is simply a record of all
international transactions done by the residents , companies or the government
of a country with the rest of the world.
b) Loans taken
c) Profits made
d) Losses incurred
Ans : a
20) What is
‘securitisation’ ? Give details.
a) Securitisation involves pooling of
homogeneous assets and the subsequent sale of the cash flows from these asset
pools to investors.
b) The securitisation market is
primarily intended to redistribute the credit risk away from the originators to
a wide spectrum of investors who can bear the risk, thus aiding financial
stability and provide an additional source of funding.
c) Banks can securitise loans only after
a MHP counted from the date of full disbursement of loans for an
activity/purpose; acquisition of asset (i.e., car, residential house etc.) by
the borrower or the date of completion of a project, as the case may be.
d) All the above
Ans : d
21) What is “Digital Transaction’ ?
a) A payment transaction in a seamless
system effected without the need for cash at least in one of the two legs, if
not in both.
b) This includes transactions made
through digital / electronic modes wherein both the originator and the
beneficiary use digital / electronic medium to send or receive money.
c) Both (a) & (b )
d) Cash payment
Ans : c
22) What is Electoral Bond? Which is
eligible political party for this ?
a) Electoral Bond is a bearer Banking
Instrument to be used for funding eligible Political Parties.
b) An eligible Political Party is the
one registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
(43 of 1951) and secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the
last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) It is currency note
Ans : c
23) What is the Validity/ Maturity of
Electoral Bonds?
a) The Electoral Bonds shall be valid
for Fifteen Calendar Days from the Date of Issue (for example: An Electoral
Bond issued on 1StMarch 2018 will be valid upto 15thMarch 2018.)
b) one year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years
Ans : a
24) Can a person redeem these Electoral Bonds in any Account?
a) No. The Electoral Bonds can be
redeemed only by an eligible Political Party by depositing the same in their
Designated Bank Account maintained with Authorised Bank.
b) Yes
c) Why not
d) May be possible
Ans : a
25) Who can purchase Electoral Bonds?
Who is eligible to Donate through Electoral Bonds?
a) The Electoral Bonds under this Scheme
may be purchased by a Person, who is a Citizen of India or Incorporated or
Established in India.
b) an Association of Persons or a Body of
Individuals, whether incorporated or not;
c) every Artificial Juridical Person,
not falling within any of the preceding subclauses; and
d) any Agency, Office or Branch owned or
controlled by such person.
All the above
Ans : d
26) At what price the Electoral Bonds
are sold? What are the Denominations or Face Value of Electoral Bonds?
a) Rs1000,
b) Rs 10,000, Rs 1,00,000,
c) Rs 10,00,000
d) Rs 1,00,00,000
and
All the above (The Electoral Bonds shall be issued in the above
denominations )
Ans : d
27) What is the minimum and maximum
limit for Donation?
a) The minimum amount for donation in
Electoral Bonds is Rs 1000. There is no maximum limit for Donation
b) Rs.500
c) Rs.100
d) Rs.200
Ans : a
28) Who is eligible to open Current
Account for Redemption of Electoral Bonds?
a) Only Political Parties registered
under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951)
and secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General
Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly.
b) Freedom fighters
c) NGOs
d) Students
Ans : a
29) Hybrid versions of New Keynesian
Phillips Curve (NKPC) are used to study whether_________ expectations of
households work as proxy of forward looking expectations to predict inflation.
a) inflation
b)
unemployment
c) deflation
d) under employment
Ans : a
30)
“Nine oilseeds” include which of
the following (for economic growth calculation purpose)?
a) castor seed, groundnut, linseed,
b) niger seed, safflower,
c) sesamum, soya bean, sunflower,
d) rapeseed & mustard (R&M)
and All the above
Ans : d
31) Which of the following are the important elements
of the Basel III framework ?
a) stricter requirements for the quality and quantity
of regulatory capital, in particular reinforcing the central role of common
equity
b) an additional layer of common equity - the capital
conservation buffer - that, when breached, restricts discretionary pay-outs to
help meet the minimum common equity requirement
c) a countercyclical capital buffer, which places
restrictions on participation by banks in system-wide credit booms with the aim
of reducing their losses in credit busts
d) liquidity requirements - a minimum liquidity
ratio, the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), intended to provide enough cash to
cover funding needs over a 30-day period of stress; and a longer-term ratio,
the Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR), intended to address maturity mismatches
over the entire balance sheet;
and All the above
Ans : d
32) Payments banks will provide a
limited range of products, such as, acceptance of demand deposits and
remittances of funds, but will have a widespread network of access points
particularly to remote areas, either through their own branch network or
through BCs or through networks provided by others. They will add value by
adapting technological solutions to lower costs. In the abbreviation BCs, the
letter B stands for what ?
a) Best
b)
Business ( BCs : Business Correspondents )
c) Broadband
d) Buyer
Ans : b
33) How many affordable houses
construction , Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has approved for the benefit of urban poor under Pradhan
Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) with an investment of Rs. 8,105 cr with central
assistance of Rs. 1,681 ?
a) 50,000
b) 1,12,083 more affordable houses
c) 25,000
d) 35,000
Ans : b
34) Which of the following is correct
about Honey Revolution/Sweet Revolution ?
a) The National Bee Board has given 205%
more financial assistance in the last three years.
b) The number of bee colonies increased
from 20 lakh to 30 lakh.
c) There has been 20.54% increase in the
production of honey
d) All the above
Ans : d
35)
The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 was promulgated on May 4,
2017. It inserted which two new Sections ?
a)
Sections (viz. 35AA and 35AB) after Section 35A of the Ban king Regulation Act,
1949 enabling the Union Government to authorize the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
to direct banking companies to resolve specific stressed assets by initiating
insolvency resolution process, where required
b) Section 1
c) Section 2
d) Section 3
Ans : a
36)
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code) was enacted on May 28, 2016.
The Code provides which of the following ?
a) comprehensive, modern and robust insolvency and
bankruptcy regime, at par with global standards and even better in some aspects
b) earning profits
c) making contracts
d) giving loans to poor
Ans : a
37)
A key innovation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
is four pillars of institutional infrastructure. What are they ?
a)
The first pillar is a class of regulated persons, the “Insolvency
Professionals”, who assist the stakeholders in conduct of insolvency and
bankruptcy process.
b)
The second pillar is a new industry of `Information Utilities’ who store and
make available authentic
information required to carry out various
transactions under the Code efficiently and expeditiously.
c)
The third pillar is the adjudicating authorities, namely, NCLT and DRT for
corporates and individuals respectively and their appellate bodies, namely,
NCLAT and DRAT.
d)
The fourth pillar is a regulator, namely, “The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board
of India” which has regulatory over-sight over the Insolvency Professionals,
Insolvency Professional Agencies and Information Utilities and writes
regulations to govern various transactions under the Code.
And All the above
Ans : d
38)
What is NPS ? Give details .
a)
National Pension System (NPS)
b)NPS is a defined contribution-based pension
scheme launched by the Government of India
c)
NPS objectives are providing old age income, market-based
returns over the long run and extending old age income security coverage to all
citizens.
d)
The efforts of the government are to widen the reach of the scheme beyond
employees
who are within the government fold
and All the above
Ans : d
39)
The Government revised the base year of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) from
2004-05 to 2011-12 from when? Give details about WPI based inflation ?
a) revised
from April 2017
b)
WPI inflation measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk
sale at the level of early stage of transactions pertaining to four sectors
namely agriculture, mining, manufacturing and electricity
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Retail rates of rice
Ans : c
40)
Which of the following is correct about the ‘energy mix of India’ ?
a)
coal accounts for nearly 55 per cent of the total primary energy supply
b) oil accounts at 30 per cent
c)
natural gas accounts at 9 per cent..
d) Only 2 per cent of total primary energy is
supplied by renewable energy sources
and All the above
Ans : d
41)
‘Social cost of carbon’ refers to which of the following ? Give details.
a)
the economic cost or loss in the discounted value of economic welfare induced
by an additional unit of carbon dioxide emissions (Nordhaus,2017).
b)
The generation of power from coal based thermal power plants is based on the
combustion of coal as fuel and thus
generate emissions that contribute to increasing the
concentration of greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere.
c)
Nordhaus (2017) finds that the global social cost of carbon at 2010 prices for
the year 2015 was US$ 31.2 per tCO2.
d) All the above
Ans : d
42)
“Standard Deduction of Rs. 40,000 in place of present exemption for transport
allowance and reimbursement of miscellaneous medical expenses.” It is relating
to which of the following (Union Budget 2018-19) ?
a) GST
b) Personal Income -Tax
c) Service Tax
d) Customs Duty
Ans: b
43)What is the proposed salary of MP and
other financial benefits w.e.f.1.4.2018 ?
a) Salary : Rs.1.0 Lakh ( raised from Rs.0.50 Lakh)
b) Constituency allowance : Rs.70,000 (
raised from Rs.45,000)
c) Secretarial costs : Rs.60,000 (raised
from Rs.45,000)
d) All the above (as per budget papers )
Ans:d
44) Which of the following is correct
about monthly emoluments ?
a) President of India : Rs.5.0 Lakhs
b) Vice President of India : Rs.4.0
Lakhs
c) Governor : Rs.3.5 lakhs
d) All the above (As per Union Budget
2018-19)
Ans: d
45) Which
of the following is correct about the monthly emoluments of the following ?
a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
of India : Rs. 2.90 Lakhs
b) Judges of Supreme Court : Rs.2.50
Lakhs
c) Chief Justice of a High Court : Rs.
2.50 Lakhs
d) Judges of High Courts : Rs.2.25 Lakh
and All the above
Ans: d
46) Why ‘Dutch Disease’ was in news, sometime back ?
a) Because the foreign exchange rate is being propped up by
capital inflows to the detriment of manufacturing and services, especially
tradable and labour-intensive manufacturing and services.(in India)
b) Polio
c) TB
d) AIDS
Ans: a
47) India's first engine-less train, "Train 18", developed by
the Integral Coach Factory (ICF) & seen as a successor to the prestigious
Shatabdi Express, was unveiled by Railway Board Chairman. Where is ICF in
Ssouth India?
a) Chittaranjan
b) Chennai
c) Varanasi
d) Rai Barely
Ans : b
48) National Wildlife Genetic Resource Bank (NWGRB) inaugurated at
Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology‘s (CCMB) Laboratory of Conservation
of Endangered Species (LaCONES) facility in __________. It is India‘s first
genetic resource bank where the genetic material will be stored.
a) Chennai
b) Hyderabad, Telangana
c) Bengalore
d) Mumbai
Ans : b
48) Cabinet has approved the merger of Vijaya Bank & Dena Bank with
Bank of Baroda. Which of the following is correct ?
a) After this merger, Bank of Baroda will become the third biggest
public sector bank.
b) The merger will be effective from April 1. This is also the first
ever three-way merger in Indian banking.
c) As per the Scheme of Amalgamation, shareholders of Vijaya Bank will
get 402 equity shares of BoB for every 1,000 shares held.
d) In case of Dena Bank, its shareholders will get 110 shares for every
1,000 shares of BoB
and All the above (as per news)
Ans : d
49) RBI shortlisted six major IT companies, including TCS, Wipro &
IBM India, to set up a wide-based digital Public Credit Registry (PCR) for
capturing details of all borrowers & wilful defaulters. Other three are
_______
a) Capgemini Technology Services India
b) Dun & Bradstreet Information Services India
c) Mindtree Ltd
d) All the above
Ans : d
50) Which of the following are the advantages in UPI?
a)The user may add all his/her Bank accounts under one App
and transact from/to any of those accounts.
b) UPI rides on IMPS channel which is
available 24*7*365 and ensures instant credit.
c) UPI supports all latest Android
Phones
d) any Bank Customer may download and
use the UPI Application of any Bank enabled for it
and All the above
Ans : d
51) Who can apply under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code ?
a)
Creditors (both financial and operational),
debtors,
b) authorised members,
c) person in charge of managing the
operations and who has control and supervision of the debtor
d) All the above
Ans : d
52) Five States – Maharashtra, Uttar
Pradesh, Punjab, Karnataka and Rajasthan – have announced farm loan waivers in
2017-18 so far. Which two states have made provisions for the likely increase
in expenditure in their budgets for 2017- 18 ?
a) Two
states – Uttar Pradesh and Punjab
b) Jarkhand
c) Odisha
d) Karnataka
Ans : a
53) Revelations made under the name ‘Paradise
Papers’ [based upon expose done by the International Consortium of
Investigative Journalists (ICIJ)] indicate that out of 180 countries
represented in the data of offshore entities held by persons of different
nationalities, India ranks 19th in terms of number of
names. The ‘Paradise Papers’ include which of the following ?
a) nearly 7 million loan agreements,
financial statements, emails, trust deeds and other paperwork over nearly 50
years from inside Appleby, a prestigious offshore law firm with
offices in Bermuda and beyond.
b) The leaked documents include files
from the smaller, family-owned trust company, Asiaciti (Singapore), and from
company registries in 19 secrecy jurisdictions.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Papers printed in Heaven
Ans : c
54) Which helped many EMEs
currencies appreciate against the US dollar in H2:2018-19 ?
a) Moderation in international crude oil prices,
b) the dovish policy stance of the US Fed and
c) waning of trade concerns
d) All the above
Ans : d
55) Which country currency witnessed the highest appreciation in
H2:2018-19 over H1:2018-19 ?
a) Turkish Lira
b) INR a
c) Indonesian Rupiah
d) Japanese Yen
Ans : a
56) Which of the following is correct about the Indian equity market ?
a) It was buoyant till August 2018fell sharply during September,
triggered by the unfolding of the IL&FS episode.
b) The downturn got exacerbated in October as market sentiment was
dented by the liquidity tightness in the NBFC sector, coupled with global trade
tensions
c) The market staged a short-lived turnaround in November 2018 mainly
due to easing of liquidity concerns in the NBFC sector
d) All the above
Ans : d
57) GVA in the electricity sector accelerated in H2 in comparison with
H1. Which of the following is relevant ?
a) However, high frequency indicators suggest that electricity
generation stagnated in January 2019 due to contraction in thermal power
generation despite comfortable stocks of coal
b) The slowdown in electricity generation was partly due to lean
seasonal demand during January-February from the agriculture and household
sectors on top of a slowdown in demand for electricity from industry during Q3
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Shortage of coal
Ans : c
58) GVA at basic prices in agriculture and allied activities
decelerated in H2:2018-19 on account of a number of factors operating in
conjunction. What are they ?
a) the poor performance of the southwest and northeast monsoons, lower
water reservoir levels in the eastern and western regions;
b) unremunerative prices for farm produce depressed by the supply glut
caused by two bumper harvests in succession and the lack of traction in food
management policies to deal with large excess supplies, which led to heightened
agrarian distress;
c) unseasonal rains and hail storms
d) All the above
Ans : d
59) While the current account deficit (CAD) widened in H1:2018-19 to
______ per cent of GDP on the back of a higher trade deficit, softer
international oil prices and robust earnings from services exports and
remittances narrowed the CAD to 2.5 per cent of GDP in Q3.
a) 2.6
b) 5
c)4
d)3
Ans : a
60) An important feature of India’s export basket in recent years has
been a shift away from primary and traditional low value-added exports to
______________. This shift has imparted a measure of resilience to export
demand in a hostile international trading environment
a) higher value-added manufacturing and technology-driven items
b) raw cotton
c) raw wool
d) raw silk
Ans : a
61) The consolidated GFD of 29 states was budgeted at 2.6 per cent of
GDP in 2018-19. This is against the backdrop of heightened pressure on state
finances from 2015-16 to 2017-18 due to which factors?
a) the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance
Yojana (UDAY),
b) farm loan waivers,
c) pay revisions
d) decline in revenue collections
and All the above
Ans : d
62) OPEC plus refers to the OPEC nations along with non-OPEC countries
namely _______that have agreed to cap crude oil production at pre-determined levels.
a) Russia
b) China
c) Japan
d) Hongkong
Ans : a
63)What is ‘Contango’ ?
a) Contango in commodity futures markets refers to a situation when the
price of a spot or near-term contract is lower than the price for a futures
contract at the longer end of the curve
b) Discount
c) Rebate
d) Percentage
Ans : a
64) Hon’ble Supreme Court has held the RBI
circular dated February 12, 2018 on Resolution
of Stressed Assets as ultra vires. The Court has held that RBI’s
directions under Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 “which are in
respect of debtors generally” would be ultra vires of that section. What is
‘ultra vires’?
a) beyond the powers
b) kick back
c) at the rate of
d) in total
Ans : a
65) The 5
point plan/ scheme to tackle bad loans, titled
as ‘Sashakt’, aims at resolving the problem of non-performing assets
through a market-led approach. Under the scheme, bankers are not seeking any
dispensation or forbearance from the Reserve Bank of India. A high-powered
bankers’ committee to better deal with bad loans through an asset management
company or asset reconstruction company structure was appointed. Who is the
chairman of the committee ?
a) Sunil Mehta
b) R.Gandhi
c) Rangagarajan
d) Raghuram Rajan
Ans :a
66) What is MAB ? Give details.
a) Monthly Average Balance (for Savings
Bank Account in banks)
b) A penalty amount ranging from Rs.20
to Rs.50 (both amounts exclusive of GST) is chargeable for non-maintenance of
sufficient balances as per bank’s rules.
c) The amount is determined on the basis
of type of branch where the account is held and the degree of shortfall ,
between the balance maintained and the MAB required
d) All the above
Ans : d
67) Which are called as Emerging Market Economies (EMEs) ?
a) China
b) Brazil
c) India
d) All the above
Ans : d
68) What are Natural Capital Accounts ?
a) Natural Capital Accounts are sets of unbiased data for material
natural resources
b) Forests, energy
c) Water
d) All the above
Ans : d
69) What is SEEA ?
a) System of Environmental – Economic Accounting
b) It is a framework that integrates economic and environmental data to
provide a more comprehensive and multipurpose view of the interrelationships
between the economy and the environment
c) It contains the internationally agreed standard concepts ,
definitions , classifications accounting rules and tables for producing
internationally comparable statistics and accounts
d)All the above
Ans : d
70) What were the Visakha Guidelines ?
a) These were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgement in 1997
b) This was on a case filed by women’s rights groups, one of which was
Visakha
c) They had filed a public interest litigation over the alleged
gap-rape of Bhanwari Devi, a social worker from Rajasthan
d) In 1992 she had prevented the marriage of a one-year old girl,
leading to the alleged gang – rape in an act of revenge
and All the above
Ans : d
71) What is told in Visakha Guidelines ? How they are being broadened by 2013 Act ?
a) Legally binding , these defined sexual harassment and imposed they
key obligations on institutions – prohibition , prevention and redress
b) The Supreme Court directed that they establish a Complaints
Committee , which would look into matters on sexual harassment of women at the
workplace
c) Every employer constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each
office or branch with 10 or more employees
d) All the above
Ans : d
72) On the supply side, the First Advance
Estimates ( FAE) of CSO, have placed the
growth of real gross value added (GVA) at 7.0 per cent in 2018-19 as compared
with 6.9 per cent in 2017-18. The estimates incorporated which of the following
?
a) a slowdown in agricultural GVA growth and an
acceleration in industrial GVA growth.
b) Services GVA growth is set to soften due to
subdued activity in trade, hotels, transport, communication and other
services..
c) Growth in public administration and defence
services is also likely to moderate
d) All the above
Ans : d
73) The extended period of cold weather in this
year’s winter is likely to boost ______yields, which would partly offset the
shortfall, if any, in area sown. (as per FAE of CSO)
a) rice
b) wheat
c) onions
d) maize
Ans : b
74) Five constituents of the food group ________________________, accounting for
about 30 per cent of food group – were in deflation in December,2018.
a) vegetables,
b) sugar,
c) pulses,
d) eggs and fruits
and All the above
Ans : d
75) The
Public Financial Management System (PFMS), launched in _______ is the flexi project of the ICAS show casing
this aspect.
a) 2011
b) 2009
c) 2012
d) 2015
Ans : b
76) PFMS
will now also be implementing the Government ambitious PM –KISAN Yojana which
would involve an estimated additional 12 -13 crore beneficiaries. It is indeed
a proud moment for the Indian Civil Accounts Organization that the First
Tranche of Rs. _______was successfully credited to the Banks Accounts of the
first lot of 1.01 crore beneficiaries on 24th February 2019
with the formal launch of the scheme by the Prime Minister.
a) 6000
b) 2000
c) 4000
d) 8000
Ans : b
77) State
Bank of India (SBI) has been authorized to issue and encash Electoral Bonds
through its 29 Authorized Branches (as per list enclosed) in the months
of_________ 2019
a) March
b) April
c) May
d) All the above
Ans : d
78) The
Electoral Bonds shall be valid for _________ calendar
days from the date of issue and no payment shall be made to any payee
Political Party if the Electoral Bond is deposited after expiry of the validity
period. The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its
account shall be credited on the same day.
a) 25
b) fifteen
c) 30
d) 21
Ans : b
79) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code) provides which of the
following ?
a) re-organisation
and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and
individuals in a time bound manner for maximization of the value of assets of
such persons,
b) to
promote entrepreneurship, availability of credit and balance the interests of
all the stakeholders
c) for
the purposes, it has established an
institutional infrastructure comprising of Adjudicating Authorities, the IBBI,
insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information
utilities
d) All the above
Ans : d
80) The
IBBI exercises which of the following ?
a)
regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional
Agencies and Information Utilities.
b) It
writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution,
corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution and individual
bankruptcy under the Code
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Giving loans
Ans : c
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